Q61. Which of the following are provided for by the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act in respect of
planning of urban and rural local governments?
1. Constitution of the District Planning Committee.
2. Not less than 2/3rd of the total members of the District Planning Committee should be elected
by, from amongst, the elected members of district panchayats and municipalities.
3. All other details regarding the composition of the District Planning Committee are left to the
State Legislatures.
4. Constitution of the Metropolitan Planning Committee.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A 1, 2 and 3
B 2 and 4
C 1, 3 and 4
D 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Correct answer: 1, 3 and 4
Q62. Which one among the following statements about the States Re-organisation Act is not correct?
A The Act dealt with the issue of redrawing of the boundaries of States
B It was passed in the year 1956
C It created fourteen States and six Union Territories
D The State boundaries were drawn for administrative convenience
Show answer
Correct answer: The State boundaries were drawn for administrative convenience
Q63. Statement I: The impeachment of the President is a quasi-judicial procedure in Parliament.
Statement II: Either House of Parliament has to prefer a charge of violation of the Constitution
before the other House which may investigate and resolve to remove the President
by not less than 2/3rd of the total membership of the House.
Codes:
A Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I.
B Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I.
C Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
D Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Show answer
Correct answer: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I.
Q64. Which of the following taxes belong to the States exclusively?
1. Taxes on lands and buildings
2. Taxes on mineral rights
3. Taxes on entry of goods into local areas
4. Taxes on income other than agricultural income
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A Only 1, 2 and 3
B Only 2 and 3
C Only 1 and 4
D 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Correct answer: Only 1, 2 and 3
Q65. Whenever the Governor of a State has to address the State Legislature, who among the following
prepares his address?
A Chief Secretary of the State
B Chief Minister and his Council of Ministers
C Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
D Governor himself
Show answer
Correct answer: Chief Minister and his Council of Ministers
Q66. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament, the term ‘closure’ refers
to:
A Suspension of debate at the termination of a day’s sitting of the Parliament
B A rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted
C The termination of a Parliamentary session
D Refusal on the part of the Government to have the opposition look at important documents
Show answer
Correct answer: A rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted
Q67. Consider the following statements:
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India/the Chairman and the Members of the Union
Public Service Commission are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal
and shall be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the
Supreme Court.
2. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office on grounds of proved
misbehaviour or incapacity after an address by each House of Parliament is supported by a
majority of total membership of that House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A Only 1
B Only 2
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: Neither 1 nor 2
Q68. The expression ‘Prime Ministerial form of government’ indicates a form of government in which:
A The Prime Minister is directly elected by the people
B The Prime Minister heads a coalition
C The Prime Minister is the Head of the State
D The Prime Minister is no longer the first among equals but is dominant
Show answer
Correct answer: The Prime Minister is no longer the first among equals but is dominant
Q69. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Schedule) (Subject)
A. Tenth Schedule 1. Languages
B. Eighth Schedule 2. Provisions as to disqualification on the
grounds of defection
C. First Schedule 3. Validation of certain Acts and Regulations
D. Ninth Schedule 4. The States
Codes:
A B C D
A 4 3 2 1
B 2 1 4 3
C 4 1 2 3
D 2 3 4 1
Show answer
Correct answer: 2 1 4 3
Q70. Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers of a State in India is collectively as well as individually responsible to
the Legislative Assembly of the State.
2. The Governor of a State has the power to appoint the Members of the State Public Service
Commission as well as the State High Court Judges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A Only 1
B Only 2
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: Neither 1 nor 2
Q71. Which of the following is/are the provisions of Article 18 of the Constitution of India which
pertains to the Right to Equality?
A No title, not being military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State
B No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State
C No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State, shall without the consent of
the President, accept any present, emolument or office of any kind from or under any foreign
State
D All the above three
Show answer
Correct answer: All the above three
Q72. What is the correct chronological order in which the following provisions were incorporated into
the Constitution of India through amendments?
1. Directive Principle on Free Legal Aid
2. Relaxation for SCs and STs in promotions
3. Twelfth Schedule
4. Article 51-A (k)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A 1-3-2-4
B 2-1-4-3
C 2-3-4-1
D 4-2-1-3
Show answer
Correct answer: 1-3-2-4
Q73. Consider the following statements:
1. The powers of the High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution of India are wider than
those of Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution of India.
2. Both High Court and Supreme Court have concurrent power to enforce the fundamental
rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A Only 1
B Only 2
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: Both 1 and 2
Q74. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter enumerated
in List I.
2. State Legislatures have exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter enumerated
in List II.
3. The Parliament as well as State Legislatures have concurrent power to make any law with
respect to any matter not enumerated in any of the three lists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2
B Only 1
C Only 2
D 1 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: 1 and 2
Q75. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India grants personal immunity to the President of India and the Governor
of a State for official acts, but no such immunity is granted to the Ministers.
2. Civil proceedings may be brought against the President of India or the Governor of a State in
respect of their personal acts only if six months’ notice has been delivered to them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A Only 1
B Only 2
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: Only 1
Q76. In which one of the following states, is provision relating to reservation for Scheduled Castes in
panchayats under 73rd Constitutional Amendment not applicable?
A Nagaland
B Mizoram
C Meghalaya
D Arunachal Pradesh
Show answer
Correct answer: Arunachal Pradesh
Q77. For which one of the following judgements of the Supreme Court, the Kesavananda Bharati case
is considered a landmark?
A The religion cannot be mobilized for political ends
B Abolishing untouchability from the country
C The basic structure of the Constitution cannot be changed
D Right to life and liberty cannot be suspended under any circumstance
Show answer
Correct answer: The basic structure of the Constitution cannot be changed
Q78. Assertion (A): The Cabinet Committees have no authority to give binding decisions on matters
assigned to them.
Reason (R): Any decision of a Cabinet Committee may be revised by the Cabinet.
Codes:
A Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
Show answer
Correct answer: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Q79. Consider the following statements:
President’s Rule in a State can be proclaimed if:
1. There is constitutional breakdown in a State.
2. The Governor sends a report to the President to that effect.
3. The Governor of a State fails to perform his constitutional functions.
4. The State Administration fails to function in accordance with the provisions of the
Constitution.
Which of these statements are correct?
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1, 2 and 4
C 2, 3 and 4
D 1, 3 and 4
Show answer
Correct answer: 1, 2 and 4
Q80. When the name of a state is changed or a new state is created, the Constitution of India is required
to be amended by Parliament by a:
A Simple majority
B Majority of total number of members of both the Houses
C Special majority
D Special majority after obtaining opinion of concerned state
Show answer
Correct answer: Simple majority