Q21. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the Advocate General of the State?
A The Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor B The Advocate General is appointed by the Governor C The Advocate General advises the State Government on legal matters D The Advocate General cannot take part in the proceedings in the State Legislature
Show answer
Correct answer: The Advocate General cannot take part in the proceedings in the State Legislature
Q22. Consider the following statements:
On proclamation of emergency under Article 352, the Fundamental Rights guaranteed in Article
19 become automatically suspended by virtue of Article 358. Additionally, the President of India
may by order under Article 359 suspend:
1. The enforcement of all or any of the Fundamental Rights (except Articles 20 and 21) as may
be specified in his order.
2. The enforcement of all or any of the Fundamental Rights except Article 21.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A Only 1 B Only 2 C Both 1 and 2 D Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: Only 1
Q23. Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament and State legislatures have concurrent power to make law prescribing punishment
for untouchability.
2. Parliament may make law empowering any court to exercise powers of the Supreme Court to
enforce the fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A Only 1 B Only 2 C Both 1 and 2 D Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: Only 2
Q24. Consider the following statements:
The State government shall appoint a finance commission to review the financial position of the
Panchayats and to make recommendations as to:
1. The distribution between the State and Panchayats of the net proceeds of taxes, tolls and fees
leviable by the states.
2. The determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may be assigned to the Panchayats.
3. The principles that will determine grants-in-aid to the Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A Only 1 B 2 and 3 C 1 and 3 D 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: 1, 2 and 3
Q25. What does the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act deal with?
A Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali languages in the Eighth Schedule B Inclusion of service tax levied by Union and collected and appropriated by the Union and the
states in the Seventh Schedule C Free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years D No reservation in Panchayats need to be made in favour of Scheduled Castes in Arunachal
Pradesh
Show answer
Correct answer: Free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
Q26. Assertion (A): The principles which govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of
the Consolidated Fund of India are determined by the Finance Commission.
Reason (R): The Finance Commission is a constitutional body to deal with financial relations
between the Union and the States.
Codes:
A Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A B Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A C A is true but R is false D A is false but R is true
Show answer
Correct answer: Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Q27. Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum prescribed age for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
3. The 73rd and 74th amendments to the Constitution of India do not apply to Sikkim, Arunachal
Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, and Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A Only 2 B Only 2 and 3 C Only 1 and 3 D 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: Only 2
Q28. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Grants) (Explanation)
A. Vote on account 1. To make any grant in advance in respect of
estimated expenditure for a part of financial
year pending the completion of the procedure
prescribed in Article 113
B. Excess grant 2. To make a grant for meeting an unexpected
demand upon resources of India
C. Exceptional grant 3. To take approval for money spent during a
financial year in excess of amount granted for the
service
D. Supplementary grant 4. To take approval if the amount authorized by law
for the current year is found insufficient
Codes:
A B C D
A 1 3 2 4 B 2 4 1 3 C 1 4 2 3 D 2 3 1 4
Show answer
Correct answer: 1 3 2 4
Q29. Which of the following opportunities is provided by the Appropriation Bill to the legislature?
A To discuss the policy and other matters related to the expenditure of various ministries B To change amount of demands of various ministries C To reallocate the grants of various ministries D To vary the amount of expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India
Show answer
Correct answer: To discuss the policy and other matters related to the expenditure of various ministries
Q30. Consider the following institutions:
1. The National Human Rights Commission
2. The Supreme Court
3. The Finance Commission
4. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
Which of these is/are not enumerated in the Constitution of India?
A 1 and 2 B Only 1 C Only 4 D 1 and 3
Show answer
Correct answer: Only 1
Q31. The powers of the Parliament in budgetary matters are covered in:
A Article 111 to 115 B Article 112 to 117 C Article 114 to 119 D Article 115 to 119
Show answer
Correct answer: Article 112 to 117
Q32. Consider the following statements:
1. The Estimates Committee comprises 20 members elected each year by the Lok Sabha from
its elected members and 10 members elected each year by the Rajya Sabha from its elected
members.
2. The Estimates Committee has no role in suggesting the form in which the estimates shall be
presented to the Parliament as that is a function of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A Only 1 B Only 2 C Both 1 and 2 D Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Correct answer: Neither 1 nor 2
Q33. An executive action taken during national emergency in violation of Article 19 of the Constitution
of India:
A Can only be challenged during the emergency B Can only be challenged after the emergency is over C Cannot be challenged at all D Can be challenged during or after the emergency
Show answer
Correct answer: Cannot be challenged at all
Q34. Which of the following statements are not correct?
1. A Member of UPSC holds office for a term of six years or until he attains the age of 65 years.
2. A Member of UPSC is eligible for re-appointment for the same post for a second term.
3. A Member of UPSC can accept employment under Central or State government after
retirement.
4. A Member of UPSC can accept employment as a member of State P.S.C. after retirement.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 1, 2 and 3 D 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Correct answer: 2, 3 and 4
Q35. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election
Commissioners in the Election Commission of India:
A the matter is to be referred to the Supreme Court of India. B the opinion of the Chief Election Commissioner is final. C the matter is to be referred to the Law Commission. D the matter is decided by the Election Commission by majority.
Show answer
Correct answer: the matter is decided by the Election Commission by majority.
Q36. Who among the following is not a member of the committee which makes recommendation to
the President of India for appointment as Chief Information Commissioner and Information
Commissioners?
A Prime Minister B Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha C A Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister D Union Law Minister
Show answer
Correct answer: Union Law Minister
Q37. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Double Jeopardy means:
A Trying two persons jointly for the same offence B Trying the same person for two offences at two different times C Putting the same person on trial twice for the same offence D Trying a person for two offences committed by him in one incident
Show answer
Correct answer: Putting the same person on trial twice for the same offence
Q38. Statement I: The principle of Cabinet responsibility in the States differs from that in the Union
of India.
Statement II: The Constitution of India does not empower the President of India to exercise any
function ‘in his discretion’; it authorizes the Governor to exercise some functions
‘in his discretion’.
Codes:
A Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I. B Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I. C Statement I is true but Statement II is false. D Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Show answer
Correct answer: Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Q39. In the post-independence period the Government appointed several committees and commissions to improve the urban local bodies. Some of them are:
1. Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
2. Taxation Enquiry Commission
3. National Commission on Urbanization
4. Local Finance Enquiry Committee
Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence in which the above committees
and commissions were set up?
A 1–2–4–3 B 4–3–1–2 C 1–3–4–2 D 4–2–1–3
Show answer
Correct answer: 4–2–1–3
Q40. Which one of the following Committees scrutinizes and reports to the Parliament whether the
power to make rules and regulations conferred by the Constitution or Statutes is being properly
exercised by the delegated authority?
A Committee on Government Assurances B Committee on Subordinate Legislation C Rules Committee D General Purposes Committee
Show answer
Correct answer: Committee on Subordinate Legislation