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Indian Polity English

Q01.Which of the following statements is/are correct? Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right: 1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. 2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. 3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

AOnly 1 B1 and 3 C2 and 3 D1, 2 and 3

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Indian Polity English

Q02.Consider the following statements: 1. There are 24 High Courts at present in India. 2. Calcutta, Bombay and Madras High Courts were established in the year 1862. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

AOnly 1 BOnly 2 CBoth 1 and 2 DNeither 1 nor 2

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Q03.Which of the following ensure functional autonomy of the UPSC? 1. The Chairman and Members can be removed only on the grounds given in the Constitution. 2. The expenditure of the Commission is a charge on the Consolidated Fund of India. 3. The Members and Chairman are allowed to accept jobs after retirement. 4. The Chairman and Members being civil servants function in a neutral manner. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A1 and 2 B2 and 3 C1, 3 and 4 D2, 3 and 4

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Q04.Lokayukta submits his report to the:

AChief Minister of the State BChief Justice of the State High Court CGovernor of the State DSpeaker of State Legislative Assembly

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Q05.Statement I: If in a cut motion during discussion of demands for grants in the Annual Financial Statement, the reduction demanded is either in the form of a lump sum or omission or reduction of an item in the demand, the motion which enables such cut is known as ‘Economy Cut’. Statement II: The motion in the above case represents disapproval of the policy underlying the demand. Codes:

ABoth the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. BBoth the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

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Q06.The purpose of an adjournment motion is to:

APropose a reduction in the budget BSeek the approval of the House on a proposal CDraw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent public importance DSeek the leave of the House to introduce a Government Bill

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Q07.Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I List-II (Name of Panchayats) (States) A. Janpad Panchayat 1. Andhra Pradesh B. Mandal Praja Parishad 2. Karnataka C. Mandal Panchayat 3. Madhya Pradesh D. Taluka Panchayat 4. Gujarat Codes: A B C D

A4 2 1 3 B3 1 2 4 C4 1 2 3 D3 2 1 4

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Q08.What is a ‘Shadow Cabinet’ in the British system?

AA group of young members of the ruling party BA group of members from the opposition party who scrutinize some functions of the government and present alternative policy CA team of intellectuals who advise the Cabinet DA Cabinet Committee that functions under the guidance of the Cabinet

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Q09.Which of the following are the common compulsory provisions of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts? 1. Five yearly elections 2. Reservation for backward classes 3. Reservation for women 4. Nagar Panchayats Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A2 and 3 B1 and 4 C1, 2, 3 and 4 D1 and 3

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Q10.The Governor of a State in his role as Administrator of an adjoining Union Territory exercises his functions, as such independently of:

AThe President of India BThe State Council of Ministers CThe Prime Minister DThe Union Home Minister

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Q11.Consider the following statements: The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India: 1. Audits all expenditures from the revenues of the Union and the States. 2. Ensures that total withdrawals by the Union Government do not exceed the amounts approved by the Parliament. 3. Can comment on correctness or otherwise of financial transactions of the Union and the States. 4. Points out cases of non-compliance of rules and regulations in expenditure. Which of these are correct?

A1 and 2 B2, 3 and 4 C1, 3 and 4 D1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q12.If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha:

AHe has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within six months BHe can declare the government’s policies only in the Rajya Sabha CHe cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no-confidence is under consideration DHe cannot take part in the budget deliberations in the Lok Sabha

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Q13.Assertion (A): An Election Commissioner in the Election Commission of India cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. Reason (R): An Election Commissioner is appointed on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. Codes:

ABoth A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A BBoth A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A CA is true but R is false DA is false but R is true

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Q14.Consider the following statements: 1. Estimates of expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India are not submitted to the vote of the Parliament and there can be no discussion on the same in either House of the Parliament. 2. Vote of credit is a grant approved by the Parliament in advance of the detailed examination of various demands presented to it. 3. Token grants do not involve additional expenditure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1, 2 and 3 B3 only C2 only D2 and 3

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Q15.The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends to:

ATreaties and agreements signed by the Government of India BDisputes between the Government of India and one or more States CDisputes relating to implementation of the Directive Principles of State Policy DA bill passed by the Parliament which is violative of the Constitution

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Q16.Consider the following statements: The Finance Commission is created: 1. By the President on the advice of the Union Cabinet 2. Under Article 280 of the Constitution of India 3. To suggest ways and means to augment the financial resources of the Union and the States 4. To make recommendations to the President defining the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India Which of these statements are correct?

A2, 3 and 4 B1, 2 and 3 C1, 3 and 4 D1, 2 and 4

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Q17.In the Interim Government formed in the year 1946, who of the following held the portfolio of Defence?

AVallabhbhai Patel BJagivan Ram CBaldev Singh DAsaf Ali

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Q18.Consider the following statements: The President cannot be a dictator, because: 1. He can be impeached for violation of Constitution. 2. The ordinances issued by him require the approval of the Parliament. 3. The proclamation of Emergency requires Parliament’s approval. 4. He has to act on the advice of Council of Ministers Which of these are correct?

A1 and 2 B2, 3 and 4 C3 and 4 D1 and 4

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Q19.Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I List-II (Fundamental Rights) (Articles) A. Right to constitutional remedies 1. Article 29 B. Protection of interests of minorities 2. Article 17 C. Abolition of untouchability 3. Article 16 D. Equality of opportunity in matters 4. Article 32 of public employment 5. Article 19 Codes: A B C D

A5 3 4 1 B4 1 2 3 C5 1 4 3 D4 3 2 1

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Q20.Which one of the following statements relating to the power of Judicial Review is correct?

ASupreme Court can take up matters for judicial review on its own BSupreme Court can be directly approached for judicial review of legislative decisions CSupreme Court can review its own judgements in the light of new developments DSupreme Court can ask Lower Courts to submit a case for its judicial review

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