Q01. Which Section is related to the ‘persons to present documents for registration’ under the Registration (Rajasthan Amendment) Act, 2021?
A Section 33 B Section 32A C Section 32 D Section 34 E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Section 32
Q02. Which of the following statement is not true?
A The subject matter of conveyance may be said to be law relating to transfer of property and rights in the nature of property. B The art of conveyancing consists of preparation of the documents. C The term conveyance sometimes is used to signify the instrument itself. D Conveyancing has been defined as comprising only those transactions by which legal rights are created and does not include the legal relations between persons. E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Conveyancing has been defined as comprising only those transactions by which legal rights are created and does not include the legal relations between persons.
Q03. According to the amendment to the Transfer of Property Act, 2002, the period within the provision of Section 106 of the Act shall commence from -
A 14 days from issuing of notice B Date of receipt of notice C Date of issue of notice D 30 days from expiry of notice E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Date of receipt of notice
Q04. In which Section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, “The Principle of Substituted Security” is mentioned?
A Section 71 B Section 74 C Section 73 D Section 72 E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Section 73
Q05. In which of the following lease, the registration is optional?
A Lease for a term of one year B Lease reserving a yearly rent C Lease from year to year D Permanent lease E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Lease for a term of one year
Q06. Pradyumna Mukund Kokil V. Nashik Municipal Corporation & others AIR 2025 SC 5050. A case relating to Sections 26, 27 and 28 of Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 was decided by a bench consisting of -
A J.B. Pardiwala and Manoj Misra J.J. B B.R. Gavai, C.J.I. and Augustine George Masih, J. C Manoj Misra and Joymalya Bagchi J.J. D Sanjay Kumar and Alok Aradhe J.J. E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: B.R. Gavai, C.J.I. and Augustine George Masih, J.
Q07. Under Section 3 of Limitation Act, 1963, a claim by way of ............ shall be treated as a separate suit.
A Counter claim only B Set-off or counter claim C Set-off only D Set-off and counter claim E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Set-off or counter claim
Q08. Where a post-dated cheque is accepted conditionally and it is honoured, then the payment for purpose of Section 19 of the Limitation Act, 1963 is considered to be made on the date -
A on which the cheque is presented to bank for payment. B on which the cheque is handed over. C on which the cheque is drawn. D which the cheque bears. E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: which the cheque bears.
Q09. Which of the following is NOT a part of Zonal Development Plan under the JDA Act, 1982?
A Alignment of buildings on any site B Mutation of land records C Maintenance of walls, fences, hedges or architectural construction D Division of any site into plots for the erection of buildings E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Mutation of land records
Q10. Which Section of the Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1982 is related to the power of the State Government to acquire land?
A Section 48 B Section 47 C Section 45 D Section 46 E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Section 45
Q11. In view of the decision of Rajasthan High Court in Lala V. Krishna Kumar Verma and others 2025(1) RLW 331 (Raj.), the Board of Revenue can exercise power of revision under Section 230 of Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955, provided -
A that the case has been finally decided only B that no appeal lies against the order only C that an interim order has been passed D that the case has been finally decided and no appeal lies against the order E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: that the case has been finally decided and no appeal lies against the order
Q12. Burden of proving voluntary or involuntary character of confession lies on -
A the accused B the co-accused C the prosecution D the court E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: the prosecution
Q13. Which of the following is not a public document as per Section 74 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
A School Leaving Certificate B Waqf document kept in the office of the Sub-registrar C Electoral Roll D Copies of registered deed of Power of Attorney E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Copies of registered deed of Power of Attorney
Q14. “The meaning of a word is to be judged by the company it keeps.” This principle is known as -
A Principle of Nocitur a Sociis B Principle of Legality C Principle of Legal Fiction D Principle of Harmonious Construction E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Principle of Nocitur a Sociis
Q15. Which of the following statement is not correct?
A In Perumal Raja @ Perumal V. State Rep. by Inspector of Police AIR 2024 SC 460, it was held that ‘Custody’ under Section 27 of the Evidence Act (Section 23 (2) Proviso of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) includes any kind of restriction, restraint or even surveillance by the Police. B In Vikram Singh and Others V. State of Punjab (2010) 3 SCC 56, it was held that formal arrest is necessary for operation of Section 27 of the Evidence Act (Section 23 (2) Proviso of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023). C In State of U.P. V. Deoman Upadhayay (1961) 1 SCR 14, it was held that the expression “accused person” in Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act (Sec. 22 Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) and the expression “a person accused of any offence” in Section 26 and 27 of the Indian Evidence Act (Section 23, Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) have the same connotation. D In Dharam Deo Yadav V. State of U.P. (2014) 5 SCC 509, it was held that expression ‘Custody’ in Section 27 of the Evidence Act (Section 23 (2) Proviso of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) does not mean formal custody. E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: In Vikram Singh and Others V. State of Punjab (2010) 3 SCC 56, it was held that formal arrest is necessary for operation of Section 27 of the Evidence Act (Section 23 (2) Proviso of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023).
Q16. How much surcharge is imposed for the purpose of development of basic infrastructure facilities, on the instrument chargeable with stamp duty under the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998?
A Twenty percent of the duty chargeable B Five percent of the duty chargeable C Ten percent of the duty chargeable D Two percent of the duty chargeable E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Ten percent of the duty chargeable
Q17. Inspector-General of Registration shall be appointed under -
A Section 6 of Registration Act, 1908 B Section 3 of Registration Act, 1908 C Section 5 of Registration Act, 1908 D Section 4 of Registration Act, 1908 E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Section 3 of Registration Act, 1908
Q18. Which of the following case is related to Doctrine of Restitution?
A Leslie Ltd. V. Sheill (1914) 3 KB 607 (CA) B Tweddle V. Atkinson, 123 ER 762 C Louisa W. Hamer V. Franklin Sidway, 124 NY 538 D White V. John Warwick & Co. Ltd. (1953) 1 WLR 1285 CA E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Leslie Ltd. V. Sheill (1914) 3 KB 607 (CA)
Q19. The period of limitation for setting aside a sale in Execution of a Decree is -
A 180 days B 60 days C 90 days D 30 days E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: 60 days
Q20. A ‘Non-obstante clause’ refers to which of the following expression?
A Provided that B Subject to C Notwithstanding that D Except that E Question not attempted
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Correct answer: Notwithstanding that